Cisco Certified Entry Networking Technician (CCENT) Practice Exam

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• What term is used to describe the REST API or GUI interface of DNA Center for external interaction?
• In a controller-based network architecture, what is the name of the interface that is used to communicate between the controller and the deployed network devices?
• Which NAT feature is commonly described as NAT overload?
• What is the dotted-decimal subnet mask for a /20 subnet?
• To configure DHCP Snooping on a switch for a specific VLAN and port, which sequence would properly implement this security feature?
• What is the role of a designated port on a LAN segment in STP?
• Which method can be used to learn the IP address of a DNS server on a DHCP-enabled client?
• Which statement describes the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a global unicast address?
• Which term best describes ports such as 51974 and 61943 that are used for temporary client connections?
• What is the role of a default gateway on a host?
• What is the function of the clock rate setting on a serial interface?
• In ACL configuration, a wildcard mask is used to specify which bits are examined. How is it related to the subnet mask?
• How does STP ensure a loop-free topology, and what is the role of the root bridge?
• If autonegotiation is enabled between a switch and Host B, what is the resulting speed and duplex?
• Which IPv6 address type is automatically configured on every interface for local-link communications?
• Which segment of the URI https://DNAC.example.com/dna/intent/api/v1/interface/network-device/1/1/5 represents the path?
• Which methods can be used to connect to an autonomous AP for management?
• Which command would designate the outside interface for NAT on the router?
• Under default STP settings, what is the primary criterion for selecting the root port on a non-root switch?
• Which network device operates primarily at Layer 3 to connect multiple networks and route packets between them?
• Which capability should a configuration management system provide to recover from accidental changes?
• What practice should you implement to track changes to network device configurations and identify who made them?
• Which topology uses a central device to connect to all other devices?
• Which MEF-defined Metro Ethernet service is equivalent to a LAN across a metro area?
• Which ACL entry would correctly configure inbound on R1 interface G0/1 to meet the given requirements?
• Which statement correctly describes the Network layer in the TCP/IP model and the device that operates there?
• In an ACL, what does a final rule 'Permit all other traffic' accomplish?
• What is the range of the dynamic NAT pool used for public addresses as described in the NAT configuration example?
• If two routers have learned all routes known by the other router, which statement is true?
• What is the purpose of a VLAN trunk?
• Which spanning-tree modes are IEEE standards?
• Where is the startup-config stored on Cisco devices?
• In router-on-a-stick design, how are multiple VLANs routed on a single router?
• Which of the following is an example of something you are used for authentication?
• Which sequence enables SSH on a router with domain, RSA key, and VTY access?
• If neither a loopback nor an administratively configured router ID exists, which IP is considered last for use as a router ID in OSPF?
• Which IPv6 address type is globally routable on the Internet?
• What is the function of the router ID in an OSPF process?
• Which statement best describes the IP subnet relationship of PC1 relative to the LAN interface on R1 in a simple internetwork?
• Which IPv6 address type is automatically configured on an interface for link-local communication without extra steps?
• Which of the following answers list a configuration step on a Cisco access switch to support IP routing using only SVIs?
• What is the main purpose of NAT?
• In a /29 IPv4 subnetting of 192.224.10.0 for all subnets, what is the network address of the sixth subnet?
• Which DHCP message is sent by the client to locate a DHCP server?
• In Spanning Tree Protocol, what is a root bridge?
• Which protocol is typically used for time synchronization in networks?
• Which interface designation is typically used in NAT to indicate the internal network side?
• Which firewall feature maintains a historical database of each connection through a device, including source, destination, and protocol ports used?
• What is the primary purpose of the MAC address table on a Layer 2 switch?
• Which statement best describes a trunk link between switches?
• In a packet destined for the Internet, which type of address is used as the destination once NAT translation occurs?
• In PAT, how can multiple internal hosts share a single public IP address?
• What does the command 'line vty 0 4' configure?
• Which of the following IP address/mask combinations would create a connected route for an entire classful network?
• What Cisco virtualization product can replace a VMware vSwitch?
• Which wireless encryption protocol is designed to provide AES-based encryption and is associated with CCMP?
• Which statement about the STP root bridge is true?
• What does 802.1Q tagging accomplish on trunk links?
• What is the primary purpose of Hello packets in OSPF?
• Which of the following statements accurately describes private IP address ranges?
• If two routers have a routing protocol enabled, what is the typical outcome regarding their routing tables?
• Which statement describes the purpose of link-local addresses in IPv6?
• Which cloud service is specific to one company that owns both the tools/infrastructure and the people who use the services?
• Which Cisco IOS command enables IPv6 routing on the device?
• Which statement best describes how ARP cache entries are refreshed when they age out?
• In IPv4, what does the default route specification 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 <next-hop> represent?
• Which command sequence enables SSH on VTY lines and disables Telnet access, thereby improving remote management security?
• Which command configures a basic static route on a Cisco router?
• What are the console connection settings used to connect to a Cisco switch as shown?
• Which Cisco IOS command on a switch interface would actively attempt to form a trunk with a neighboring switch?
• Why is inter-VLAN routing necessary in a switched network?
• Which of the following IP addresses is a private RFC 1918 address?
• In a DHCP exchange, which message does the client send to request configuration after receiving an offer?
• Which traditional LAN design point is concerned with the maximum data rate supported by switch ports?
• Which statement about leased lines is true?
• Why is two host addresses subtracted when calculating the usable hosts in a subnet with H host bits?
• When planning a greenfield SDA design, which of the following is a traditional LAN design point to consider?
• Subnetting in IPv4 networks primarily provides which benefits?
• What is the primary purpose of DHCP Snooping in a switched network?
• Which port security violation mode should be configured to force a port into a disabled state if a different device is plugged in?
• The address 172.18.0.0 is part of which private address block?
• Which IPv6 prefix denotes a link-local address?
• Why is SSH preferred over Telnet for remote management?
• Looking at the downloaded data, which key:value pair has a numeric value?
• What two IPv6 address types are typically shown by the 'show ipv6 interface brief' command?
• How does NAT treat private IP addresses on the Internet?
• Which command would you issue to see the configured IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers on a Windows device?
• Which private IPv4 range corresponds to 172.16.0.0/12?
• Which private IPv4 range corresponds to 10.0.0.0/8?
• How many usable hosts are in a /16 subnet?
• What is a broadcast domain and how can it be limited?
• Which PoE standard uses four wire pairs to deliver power?
• What best describes the stateless nature of REST?
• Which RIP version is commonly included in CCENT?
• Which IPv6 address range is reserved for link-local communication?
• What term describes the public IP address assigned by NAT to represent an inside device on the Internet?
• What does administrative distance indicate in routing?
• What is the name of the Cisco IOS CLI exec mode that allows a user to run more powerful commands?
• Which of the following is an example of something you have used for authentication?
• Which of the following options represents valid benefits of configuration provisioning when using a configuration management system?
• Which IP/mask combination would configure a router interface to create a connected route for the entire classful network 172.16.0.0/16?
• Which two ICMP message types are used by the ping command?
• Which statement accurately describes the role of the management plane compared to the data plane?
• Which statement best describes administrative distance and its effect on route selection?
• In STP, what action do non-root bridges take to prevent network loops?
• Which subnet mask corresponds to a /24 network commonly used for a LAN?
• Which commands configure an OSPF point-to-point network type on interface Fa0/1?
• In IPv6, what is the purpose of a default route?
• If no router ID is administratively configured and there is no loopback interface, which IP address is used as the router ID in OSPF?
• The term segment refers to a PDU of which layer?
• What does the command 'show mac address-table' display?
• Which statement best describes the overall purpose of NAT in a network?
• Which Cisco IOS command displays all known LLDP neighbors?
• Which port on a Wireless LAN Controller is typically used to forward user traffic?
• In IPv4 subnetting, how many host addresses are available in each /20 subnet?
• Which wildcard mask matches a subnet with 255.255.248.0?
• What term describes the private IP address of a device inside the NATed network?
• Which factor determines the root bridge in STP?
• Which statement about STP Hello messages is true?
• Migrating your on-premise email capability to a cloud-hosted email service offering is an example of what as a service model?
• When referencing MPLS VPN Layer 3 configurations, which of the following statements are true?
• Under subnetting network 192.224.10.0 with a /29 mask for all subnets, what is the broadcast address of the fifth subnet?
• Which of the following is a direct benefit of using APIs to mass-configure network devices?
• If your ISP assigns prefix 2003:1234:abcd:6600::/56, how many bits do you have to create subnets?
• Which command generates the RSA key used for SSH on a Cisco router?
• During an ICMP echo request from a host to another host across a network with switches, which statement is true about the frame's source MAC address on the first hop?
• What does IEEE 802.1X provide on a switch port?
• Which protocol prevents switching loops in a Layer 2 network?
• Which addresses are not globally routable on the Internet and are typically translated by NAT?
• Which IP address type is typically assigned to hosts inside an enterprise network?
• Which private IPv4 range corresponds to 192.168.0.0/16?
• Which action is associated with the management plane of a network device?
• Which address would be a valid default gateway for hosts in the 10.4.4.0/23 subnet if the router's interface is 10.4.4.200?
• How do static and dynamic routing differ?
• What is the ARP cache used for, and why can its entries become stale?
• In a Class B network 172.18.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0, what is the network address of the second subnet?
• Which command would you use to test connectivity by IP address and by hostname?
• Host A, in one Ethernet VLAN, needs to communicate using IPv6 to host B, which is in another Ethernet VLAN. Which answer best describes the protocol used by host A to learn the layer 2 address of host B?
• Which statement describes a feature of a routed access layer design?
• In IPv6 addressing, what does the FE80 prefix indicate?
• Which of the following is a valid IPv6 link-local address?
• OSPF-enabled routers send Hello packets using which multicast IP address?
• In a network scenario where a route is not advertised, what explains the command failure?
• In a network where a PC on R1 LAN is given IP 10.4.4.255/23 with default gateway 10.4.4.200, and PC3 is on another LAN reachable via routing, which statement is true?
• Which of the following statements correctly identifies the PDU at the transport layer?
• If a host with private IP 192.168.0.10 accesses the Internet via NAT with public IP 203.0.113.5, what source address will the web server see?
• Which feature on a switch is used to stop unauthorized devices from accessing the network by restricting MAC addresses?
• If a router is configured with LLQ during peak usage, what issue could cause users to fail to connect to internal resources?
• How many usable hosts are in a /24 subnet?
• Which port-security feature allows a switch to automatically learn and store MAC addresses on a port?
• Which topology combines two or more different topology types within the same network?
• What is a primary purpose of a configuration management system in a network?
• What is the purpose of VLAN propagation mechanisms like VTP on Cisco switches?
• Which command displays a concise summary of interface status and IP addresses on a router?
• Which statement accurately differentiates Inside Local and Inside Global addresses?
• Which MEF-defined Metro Ethernet service acts similarly to a local LAN?
• Which VPN feature provides encryption and authentication services, but only for applications accessible from the user's web browser?
• What does DHCP DORA stand for?
• The download shows the output of show ip interface brief on router R1. Which condition would most likely cause this output?
• What is a primary benefit of using an EtherChannel across multiple physical links?
• Based on a path where two serial links use HDLC and the others are Ethernet, how many times is the IP packet re-encapsulated into a new data-link frame?
• What is the effect of the command 'switchport port-security maximum 3' on a switch port?
• In the described network, all Ethernet links have an OSPF cost of 4 and the serial links between R3 and R4 have a cost of 15. With a single OSPF area, what is the cost from R1's routing table to reach the network 10.45.0.0/24?
• What is the effect of enabling port security on a switch port?
• What does Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) do in a network switch?
• In a cloud-based wireless architecture, which statement about the control and data planes is correct?
• Which topology describes a network where every device is directly connected to every other device?
• Which mode of communication is used when only one device can successfully transmit on a channel at a time?
• Which of the following is an example of something you know used for authentication?
• Which type of encryption should be avoided when encrypting data in a wireless environment?
• In OSPF, which router ID is used as the first choice when the OSPF process starts if an administrator has configured an explicit router ID?
• In SNMP, which message type from an agent to the manager requires an acknowledgment?
• Using the IPv4 address block 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask 255.255.254.0, how many usable hosts are available per subnet?
• In a routing table output, what does the number in brackets next to the route represent?
• Which statement describes NAT's effect on public IPv4 address space?
• When a host on PC1 pings PC4, which statement about the ICMP Echo Request frame is true?
• What is the router-on-a-stick design?
• How do you configure a Layer 2 switch to have a management path to other networks?
• If one end of a link is configured to trunk and the other end is dynamic auto, what will the link become?
• How can you determine if a switch port is configured as an access port or a trunk port?
• What is the difference between running-config and startup-config?
• Which command will generate the SSH encryption keys?
• In outbound NAT translations, which statement is true about the destination IP address?
• What does SSID stand for in wireless networking?
• What is the purpose of DHCP relay (ip helper-address) in a subnet?
• What is the purpose of a default route and how is it written in IPv4 syntax?
• Which feature validates ARP packets against DHCP Snooping bindings to prevent ARP spoofing?
• Which of the following IP addresses could be assigned to a host?
• Which command verifies DNS resolution for a hostname?
• What is the primary purpose of VLSM in IPv4 subnetting?
• ________ means that the QoS tool changes one or more header fields, setting a value in the header.
• What features did SNMPv3 replace communities with?
• Which feature on a switch port provides port-based network access control and authentication?
• What type of memory do switches use to build the MAC address table?
• From the following spoofing attacks, which option leverages an application, device, or service to increase the amount of traffic toward a target?
• On a port security-enabled interface, what is a likely outcome when a violation occurs?
• Which single configuration action provides the best security for accessing a router's privileged mode remotely?
• What is the purpose of NAT translation in IPv4 networks?
• How do standard ACLs differ from extended ACLs in Cisco IOS?
• What is the proper configuration sequence to enable port security on SW2 on port Gi0/1 so that only the first three clients connected to this port are allowed? In addition, if any other clients connect to this port, the port must stay active and a logging message must be generated.
• In STP, the timer that governs how often BPDUs are sent as Hello messages is called what?
• Which statement about IPv6 routing on Cisco devices is true?
• Which statement about OSPF path costs is accurate in a network where Ethernet links have a cost of 4 and routes are calculated by summing costs along the path?
• If a single OSPF router has two adjacent neighbors in the same area, how many neighboring routers exist?
• What does CAPWAP stand for?
• Which of the following statements about SVIs and IP routing on a Cisco switch is true?
• What is the next packet sent by PC1 when it tries to reach www.ciscopress.com, assuming DNS and ARP caches are as shown and the destination is on the local LAN?
• Which protocol maps an IPv4 address to a MAC address on a local network?
• What is a defining characteristic of a global unicast IPv6 address?
• What is a key improvement of RIP version 2 over version 1?
• Which security function is best suited to mitigate a DoS attack?
• DHCP Snooping primarily protects a network from what threat?
• In an OSPF network configured as a single area, which statement is true?
• Which NAT type assigns multiple private addresses to a single public IP using port numbers?
• What condition is commonly caused by LLQ during periods of high traffic load?
• Which protocol is used to discover neighboring Cisco devices on the same network?
• What is the purpose of the nslookup command?
• Which command configures a switch port to carry traffic for multiple VLANs?
• Which IPv6 prefix denotes all destinations and is used in default routes?
• How does a wildcard mask relate to an ACL and subnet mask?
• Which command shows the router’s current routing table?
• A switch uses DHCP Snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) with ARP ACLs. If host A has a valid DHCP binding but its MAC is denied by the ARP ACL, what happens to ARP messages from host A?
• Which cable type would you use to connect a router's console port to a PC?
• If two ports have the same path cost to the root, which criterion does STP use next to determine the root port?
• To implement PAT using a single global IP on the serial interface, what change is required in the router's NAT configuration?
• Which binary string represents the hexadecimal value CE?
• Which command shows the status of configured routing protocols and their timers?
• Which statement about aggregating four Fast Ethernet trunks into a single logical link is true?
• Which protocol scheme is used in the reference URI example to indicate a secure connection?
• What is NAT overload (PAT) used for?
• How does a wireless network advertise itself to devices so that they can join the network?
• Router R1 needs to be configured for dynamic NAT, reserving public IP addresses as a dynamic NAT pool for hosts in a private subnet. Which of the following commands would be useful as part of the NAT configuration on R1 to identify internal hosts?
• In an SDA underlay network, what is the role of the routed access layer?
• What does the Cisco IOS command 'show ip interface brief' display?
• In OSPF, if a Fast Ethernet interface operates at 100 Mbps and the cost is not configured, what is the resulting OSPF cost?
• In a network design, which term is used to refer to the customer edge devices?
• What is the difference between HDLC and PPP on Cisco serial links?
• Which of the following best describes the role of MP-BGP in MPLS VPN Layer 3 configurations?
• Which statement describes a perceived benefit of controller-based networks over traditional networks?
• Which device maintains the MAC-to-port forwarding table inside a VLAN?